99 practice questions for the door supervisor units (door supervision, conflict management and physical intervention knowledge), written by FreeExamPath from the SIA specifications and UK law, with every answer explained. Choose a topic, pick an answer and check yourself straight away.
About these questions
These are FreeExamPath's own questions on the SIA specifications, written from official sources. They are not awarding-body exam questions, and FreeExamPath is not affiliated with the SIA or any awarding organisation. The SIA training specifications
A customer swings a fist at a door supervisor but misses completely. Which offence could this still be?
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Correct answer: B — Common assault
Why?Common assault can be committed by making someone fear immediate unlawful force, so no contact is needed. Battery would require force actually to be applied.Source
A customer is punched once and loses two teeth. Which offence category most likely fits this injury?
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Correct answer: C — Actual bodily harm
Why?Losing teeth goes beyond a minor injury and usually fits actual bodily harm. Grievous bodily harm with intent needs really serious harm and an intention to cause it.Source
What mainly separates the most serious grievous bodily harm offence from the other GBH offence?
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Correct answer: D — The attacker intended serious harm
Why?The most serious GBH offence turns on intent to cause really serious harm. Using a weapon may be evidence of intent but is not what defines the offence.Source
Which element must be proved for theft under the Theft Act 1968?
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Correct answer: A — Intent to permanently deprive the owner
Why?Theft is dishonestly appropriating property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving them of it. Force turns theft into robbery but is not needed for theft.Source
A man shoves a woman to the floor so he can grab her handbag, then runs off. Which offence is this most likely to be?
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Correct answer: B — Robbery
Why?Robbery is stealing while using force, or putting someone in fear of force, immediately before or at the time and in order to steal. Theft alone involves no force.Source
A customer slips into a staff-only office without permission, intending to take cash from a desk drawer. Which offence could this be?
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Correct answer: C — Burglary
Why?Entering part of a building as a trespasser with intent to steal is burglary, even if nothing is taken. Being allowed into public areas does not give permission to enter staff-only areas.Source
A customer deliberately smashes a mirror in the venue's toilets. Which offence is this most likely to be?
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Correct answer: D — Criminal damage
Why?Deliberately destroying or damaging someone else's property is criminal damage. It is a crime, not only a matter for the venue to claim compensation.Source
During a search, a customer is found with a bottle that has been broken off at the neck. How is it best described in law?
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Correct answer: C — An article adapted to cause injury
Why?An offensive weapon can be made, adapted or intended for causing injury; a deliberately broken bottle has been adapted. It was not manufactured as a weapon, so 'made' is wrong.Source
A customer arrives with a hammer, saying it is 'for anyone who starts trouble'. Why could it count as an offensive weapon?
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Correct answer: B — He intends to use it to injure someone
Why?An everyday item becomes an offensive weapon when the person carrying it intends to use it to cause injury. A hammer is not made for that purpose, so intention is what matters here.Source
A customer carries a non-locking folding pocketknife. When does the offence of having a bladed article in a public place not apply to it?
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Correct answer: A — When its cutting edge is 3 inches or less
Why?The offence covers folding pocketknives only if the cutting edge of the blade exceeds 3 inches. Keeping a longer blade folded away does not take it outside the offence.Source
A customer found carrying a small kirpan says he carries it for religious reasons. What does the law on bladed articles say?
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Correct answer: D — Religious reasons can be a defence
Why?The Criminal Justice Act 1988 gives a defence for carrying a blade for religious reasons. The item is still a bladed article, so it is not outside the law altogether, and the venue may still apply its conditions of entry.Source
For which purpose does the Criminal Law Act 1967 allow a person to use reasonable force?
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Correct answer: B — To prevent a crime
Why?Section 3 allows reasonable force in the prevention of crime or in making a lawful arrest. Enforcing house rules or demanding ID is not a purpose the section covers.Source
What gives a door supervisor the right to search a customer at the entrance?
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Correct answer: A — Consent under the conditions of entry
Why?Searches by door supervisors depend on the customer agreeing, usually as a condition of entry. An SIA licence gives no power to search without consent.Source
A customer at the door refuses a search that is a condition of entry. What should the door supervisor do?
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Correct answer: C — Refuse entry and record the refusal
Why?Without consent there can be no search, but the customer can be refused entry because they did not meet the conditions. Refusing a search is not an offence, so detaining them would be unlawful.Source
Staff see a customer pass a small package to a friend, so a door supervisor asks to search that customer only. What type of search is this?
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Correct answer: B — A specific search
Why?A search of a particular person because of something seen or reported is a specific search. A general search applies to everyone, and a random search picks people without a particular reason.Source
Who should normally carry out a body search of a customer?
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Correct answer: A — A searcher of the same sex as the customer
Why?Body searches should normally be carried out by someone of the same sex as the person being searched. Holding an SIA licence or seniority does not change this.Source
Why should a searcher ask customers to empty their own pockets before a search?
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Correct answer: D — To reduce the risk of needlestick injuries
Why?Hidden needles and sharp items are a key search hazard, so customers remove items themselves first. It may also save time, but safety is the reason for the practice.Source
A searcher is pricked by a used needle found in a jacket. What should they do first?
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Correct answer: C — Let it bleed, wash it, then get medical advice
Why?Encouraging bleeding, washing with soap and water and getting prompt medical advice is the safe response; the incident must also be reported. Sucking the wound adds risk of infection.Source
Why should searches and any items found be recorded in a search log?
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Correct answer: A — To give an accurate record if a search is questioned
Why?The specification requires search documentation so there is an accurate record of who was searched, by whom and what was found. The SIA does not routinely review venue search logs.Source
A search finds an item that is legal but against venue rules, such as the customer's own bottle of spirits. What is usual practice?
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Correct answer: B — Follow venue policy, such as refusing it entry
Why?Restricted items that are legal are dealt with under the venue's policy, for example refusing entry or storing them. They remain the customer's property and possessing them is not a crime.Source
An entry search finds a kitchen knife in a customer's bag. What should the door supervisor do?
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Correct answer: D — Secure the knife and contact the police
Why?A knife in a public place is a prohibited item and a possible offence, so it should be made safe and the police informed. Handing it back would release a weapon onto the street.Source
A customer wearing a religious head covering needs to be searched. What is good practice?
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Correct answer: D — Offer a private search by a same-sex searcher
Why?Searches should take account of diverse needs, for example by offering privacy and a same-sex searcher. Leaving the person unsearched would treat them differently and leave a gap in security.Source
Why might door supervisors search the premises before the venue opens?
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Correct answer: B — To find hidden weapons, drugs or suspicious items
Why?Searching premises can find items hidden in advance, such as weapons, drugs or suspicious packages. Stock checks and fire risk assessments are separate tasks.Source
A customer is found with many small bags of the same powder and a large amount of cash. Which offence might this suggest?
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Correct answer: C — Possession with intent to supply
Why?Many small wraps plus cash are signs that drugs may be intended for supply, which is a separate, more serious offence than simple possession.Source
When could the people managing a venue commit an offence under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 if drugs are sold there?
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Correct answer: D — If they knowingly permit drug supply on the premises
Why?Section 8 makes it an offence for an occupier or person concerned in management to knowingly permit or suffer drug supply on the premises. Finding drugs does not automatically make them guilty.Source
Which pattern could suggest drug dealing inside a venue?
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Correct answer: A — One person making many short toilet trips with different people
Why?Repeated brief visits to toilets or quiet areas with different people are a common sign of dealing. Buying rounds quickly may point to heavy drinking but not dealing.Source
A door supervisor seizes a bag of suspected drugs from a customer. What should happen to it?
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Correct answer: B — Seal, record and store it securely for the police
Why?Seized drugs should be bagged, recorded with a witness and kept in secure storage until handed to the police. Flushing them destroys evidence and goes against normal procedure.Source
Why should seized drugs be passed to the police as soon as possible?
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Correct answer: C — The legal defence for holding them needs prompt handover
Why?The legal defence for taking drugs to stop an offence requires all reasonable steps, as soon as possible, to destroy them or deliver them to someone lawfully entitled, and venue procedure is to hand them to the police. The other options are not legal rules.Source
A used syringe is found in a toilet cubicle. How should it be dealt with?
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Correct answer: D — Placed in a sharps bin, using protective gloves
Why?Used needles are contaminated waste and go into a sharps container, handled with protective equipment; never recap them. Wrapping them in paper still leaves a hazard for cleaners.Source
Why should a crime scene inside a venue be preserved?
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Correct answer: A — So evidence stays intact for the police
Why?Preserving the scene keeps evidence such as blood, fingerprints and dropped items intact for the police. Cleaning or reopening early can destroy that evidence.Source
Why should a door supervisor log everyone who enters a cordoned crime scene?
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Correct answer: C — Each person may leave or remove traces
Why?Anyone entering a scene can add or remove traces, so the police need to know who went in and when. Entering a cordon is not itself something people are charged for.Source
A bottle used in an assault lies on the floor. What should a door supervisor normally do with it?
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Correct answer: C — Leave it in place and protect the area
Why?Discarded articles can carry fingerprints, DNA and blood, so they should be left where they are and protected. Moving or wiping the bottle could destroy that evidence.Source
After a serious assault in the venue, what should happen to the CCTV footage?
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Correct answer: B — Keep it secure and available for the police
Why?CCTV is key evidence and should be secured for the police. It is also personal data, so it must not be shared informally with members of the public.Source
A customer filmed a fight on their phone. What should the door supervisor do?
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Correct answer: D — Ask them to keep it and note their details for police
Why?Phone footage can be valuable evidence, so the customer should be asked to keep it and agree to be contacted. Door supervisors have no power to seize someone's phone.Source
Which type of evidence could police recover from a cup or cigarette end dropped at a crime scene?
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Correct answer: B — DNA
Why?Items that touched someone's mouth or hands can carry DNA. Witness statements and camera footage come from people and devices, not from discarded articles.Source
Which is one of the four licensing objectives under the Licensing Act 2003?
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Correct answer: D — The protection of children from harm
Why?The four objectives are preventing crime and disorder, public safety, preventing public nuisance and protecting children from harm. Public health is not one of them under the 2003 Act.Source
A venue asks door staff to keep customers quiet as they leave late at night. Which licensing objective does this mainly support?
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Correct answer: C — The prevention of public nuisance
Why?Noise from departing customers affects local residents, which is a public nuisance issue. Public safety is about protecting people from harm.Source
A sober customer buys a drink in a pub for a friend who is clearly drunk. What does the Licensing Act 2003 say?
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Correct answer: A — The sober customer commits an offence
Why?It is an offence knowingly to obtain alcohol on relevant premises for a drunk person to drink there. The offence is not limited to staff who serve.Source
A drunk customer refuses to leave when asked by a door supervisor working for the venue. What is the legal position?
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Correct answer: C — They commit an offence unless they have a reasonable excuse
Why?Under section 143, a drunk or disorderly person who fails to leave when asked by an authorised person working at the premises commits an offence, unless they have a reasonable excuse. A police request is not required.Source
Authorised venue staff ask a police officer to help remove a drunk customer. What does the Licensing Act 2003 require?
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Correct answer: A — The officer must help expel the customer
Why?Section 143 says a constable must help expel a drunk or disorderly person, or help prevent their entry, when asked by authorised staff. It does not require an arrest.Source
Under the Licensing Act 2003, unaccompanied under-16s must not be present while which premises are open for alcohol?
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Correct answer: B — Premises used mainly for drinking alcohol there
Why?The rule covers premises used exclusively or primarily for supplying alcohol to drink on the premises, such as most pubs and bars. Restaurants are not mainly used for drinking, so they are not covered by it at normal hours.Source
A 17-year-old is eating a table meal in a restaurant with adults. Which drink may an adult lawfully buy for them?
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Correct answer: D — Beer, wine or cider
Why?An adult may buy beer, wine or cider for a 16- or 17-year-old to drink with a table meal when accompanied by an adult. Spirits are not included.Source
Under the Licensing Act 2003, what counts as taking all reasonable steps to check a customer's age?
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Correct answer: B — Asking for evidence of age that would convince a reasonable person
Why?A seller is treated as having taken all reasonable steps if they asked for evidence of age that would convince a reasonable person. A spoken date of birth or a friend's word is not evidence.Source
Which features should acceptable proof of age carry?
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Correct answer: D — A photograph, date of birth and a hologram or UV mark
Why?Accepted proof of age carries the holder's photograph, date of birth and a holographic mark or ultraviolet feature, as on a passport or photocard licence. A college card without these features is not reliable.Source
Correct answer: A — The personal licence holder named on the premises licence
Why?The DPS is the individual named on the premises licence, and they must hold a personal licence for alcohol to be sold. The head door supervisor manages security, not the licence.Source
When may a police officer enter and search licensed premises under section 180 of the Licensing Act 2003?
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Correct answer: C — When they believe a Licensing Act offence is involved
Why?Section 180 lets a constable enter and search premises where they have reason to believe a Licensing Act offence has been, is being or is about to be committed. No warrant or invitation is needed.Source
A customer is asked to leave and given reasonable time to go, but stays. What is their status?
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Correct answer: B — A trespasser
Why?Once permission to be on the premises is withdrawn and reasonable time to leave has passed, the person becomes a trespasser. Only reasonable force may then be used to remove them, as a last resort.Source
Why is a well-managed queue important for door supervisors?
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Correct answer: C — It lets staff assess customers before they reach the door
Why?A controlled queue gives time to spot intoxication, vulnerability or aggression before entry. Speed and appearance are not its safety purpose.Source
Before a queue forms, what should door supervisors check about the barriers?
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Correct answer: D — They are secure and leave routes and exits clear
Why?Queue barriers must be safe and must not block escape routes or the pavement unsafely. Placing them as close to the door as possible may block an exit.Source
Why should door supervisors tell people in the queue about entry rules, such as ID and dress code, early on?
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Correct answer: A — It cuts frustration and conflict at the door
Why?Clear early communication means people are not surprised at the door after a long wait, which reduces conflict. ID must still be checked at the door.Source
A customer in a long queue looks unwell and unsteady in the cold. What should a door supervisor do?
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Correct answer: D — Check on their welfare and act on concerns
Why?Door supervisors should monitor the queue for welfare issues and respond to them. Letting the person straight in without assessment could put them, or others, at risk.Source
Where is a venue's maximum safe capacity normally set out?
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Correct answer: C — In the premises licence or fire risk assessment
Why?Capacity limits come from the fire risk assessment and may be a condition of the premises licence. Door staff enforce the limit but do not set it each night.Source
The venue is under its total capacity, but the roof terrace is packed. What should door supervisors do?
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Correct answer: A — Control entry to the terrace until numbers fall
Why?Capacity can apply to specific areas as well as the whole venue, so access to a crowded area should be controlled. Meeting the total limit does not make a crowded area safe.Source
Why should a venue follow a planned dispersal process at closing time?
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Correct answer: A — To reduce disorder and noise as people leave
Why?Planned dispersal, such as staggered exits, reduces disorder and disturbance to neighbours. Emptying the venue as fast as possible can create crowds and conflict outside.Source
A very drunk young woman on her own is refused entry late at night. What should door supervisors consider?
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Correct answer: D — Her safety, such as helping her reach friends or a taxi
Why?The specification asks door supervisors to consider vulnerability when refusing entry or ejecting, so they should help make sure the person is safe. Letting her in while very drunk would not help her.Source
Door supervisors see someone pass an ID card back along the queue. What may this suggest?
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Correct answer: C — The ID may be shared with an under-age friend
Why?Passing ID back along a queue is a common way of lending it to someone under 18. Door staff should check that the photo matches the person presenting it.Source
When should a door supervisor tell someone that a body-worn camera is recording them?
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Correct answer: D — As soon as practicable after recording starts
Why?People should be told they are being recorded as soon as practicable; this supports fairness under data protection law and can also calm behaviour. Venue CCTV signs do not cover a personal camera.Source
A door supervisor records an incident on a body-worn camera. What should happen to the recording?
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Correct answer: C — Keep it unaltered and follow the venue's procedure
Why?Footage is evidence and personal data, so it must be kept unedited and handled under the procedure. Trimming it could make it unreliable as evidence.Source
What does a stab-resistant vest mainly protect against?
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Correct answer: B — Edged weapons such as knives
Why?A stab vest is designed to resist knife attacks to the torso. It does not necessarily stop needles or spikes, which need a different protection level.Source
Who pays for personal protective equipment that the law requires a door supervisor to use at work?
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Correct answer: C — The employer
Why?The Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 bars employers from charging employees for things provided to meet specific legal requirements. Staff should not have to buy required PPE.Source
Which factor is most likely to inhibit, rather than trigger, aggression?
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Correct answer: B — Knowing the incident is being filmed
Why?Fear of consequences, such as being filmed, can hold people back from aggression. Alcohol, loss of face and unexplained refusals are common triggers.Source
Correct answer: D — Your behaviour shapes my attitude, and mine shapes yours
Why?The cycle shows that attitudes and behaviour feed each other in both directions, so a calm, positive approach can change the other person's response. Staff behaviour matters as much as the customer's.Source
Correct answer: A — Understanding the situation from the other person's view
Why?Empathy is understanding how the other person sees and feels about the situation, without having to agree with them. Feeling sorry for them is sympathy.Source
Why is the first response to an angry customer so important?
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Correct answer: C — It sets the tone and can prevent escalation
Why?An appropriate initial response, calm and non-threatening, can stop a situation getting worse. Trying to show who is in charge often escalates conflict.Source
Why should a door supervisor leave an angry person a clear way out?
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Correct answer: D — Feeling trapped can push someone to fight
Why?People who feel cornered are more likely to react with 'fight'; space and an exit route let them back down. It is a de-escalation tool, not a legal rule.Source
A customer is too drunk to follow long explanations. How should the door supervisor adapt?
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Correct answer: A — Use short, simple sentences and repeat key points
Why?Alcohol is a barrier to communication, so messages should be simple and repeated. Long explanations or speaking loudly and fast make understanding harder.Source
Which body language helps calm a tense conversation?
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Correct answer: B — Open hands and a relaxed, slightly side-on stance
Why?Open, non-threatening body language reduces tension and keeps a safe position. Standing square-on and close, or pointing, can be seen as a challenge.Source
Which behaviour may warn that a customer is about to become violent?
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Correct answer: D — Clenching fists and glancing at a target
Why?Clenched fists and target glancing are recognised danger signs that risk is escalating. Asking for a manager or explaining a complaint is not in itself a warning of violence.Source
A customer reacts badly to one door supervisor but calms down when a colleague speaks. What is good practice?
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Correct answer: C — Let the colleague who has rapport take the lead
Why?Working with colleagues includes handing over to whoever is making progress. Insisting the first person stays in charge can keep the conflict going.Source
Which action best helps build trust when resolving a dispute?
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Correct answer: C — Doing what you said you would do
Why?Trust comes from honesty and keeping your word. Promises that cannot be kept may calm things briefly but damage trust and can restart the conflict.Source
When ejecting a customer, why should door supervisors try to avoid an audience?
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Correct answer: D — People resist more when they risk losing face
Why?Being removed in front of friends can make someone resist to save face, so a quieter approach reduces conflict. There is no legal rule that ejections happen in private.Source
What effect can the 'fight or flight' response have on a door supervisor in a confrontation?
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Correct answer: A — Narrowed attention and poorer fine motor control
Why?Adrenaline can cause tunnel vision, reduced hearing and clumsy hands, which affects decisions. It does not usually improve memory or clear thinking.Source
A customer keeps swearing at bar staff. What is the best first step for a door supervisor?
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Correct answer: A — Explain calmly that it must stop and what happens if not
Why?Unacceptable behaviour should first be addressed firmly and calmly, with a clear warning about further action. Ejecting without a word can escalate a situation that may have been resolved.Source
When should a door supervisor use physical intervention?
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Correct answer: C — Only as a last resort
Why?The specification stresses using physical intervention only as a last resort, when other options have failed or are unsafe. Refusal or verbal abuse alone does not justify it.Source
A door supervisor uses more force than necessary during an ejection. What could follow?
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Correct answer: D — Prosecution, a civil claim and loss of their licence
Why?Excessive force can be a criminal assault, lead to a civil claim and put the person's SIA licence at risk. Being on duty gives no extra protection.Source
A person being held says, 'I can't breathe.' How should staff respond?
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Correct answer: B — Treat it as a serious warning sign and act at once
Why?Saying 'I can't breathe' must be treated as a warning of possible positional asphyxia. Being able to speak does not prove that breathing is adequate.Source
A struggling person suddenly goes quiet and limp during a hold. What should staff assume?
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Correct answer: C — It may be a medical emergency needing checks
Why?Sudden passivity can mean loss of consciousness or breathing failure, so it must be treated as a possible medical emergency. Assuming it is compliance can be fatal.Source
Which group of factors increases the risk of positional asphyxia?
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Correct answer: B — Face-down position, weight on the back and drug use
Why?Lying face down, pressure on the torso and intoxication all make breathing harder. A short standing hold with space around it carries much less risk.Source
Which signs may point to acute behavioural disturbance (excited delirium)?
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Correct answer: D — Extreme agitation, overheating and unusual strength
Why?Extreme agitation, high body temperature and unusual strength are recognised signs, and the person needs urgent medical help. Drowsiness and slow speech point to other causes.Source
Why are incidents that go to the ground especially risky?
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Correct answer: A — Breathing can be restricted and injury is more likely
Why?On the ground there is a greater risk of restricted breathing, head injury and broken glass, so it must be dealt with quickly and safely. It is not automatically unlawful.Source
Why should a physical intervention last no longer than necessary?
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Correct answer: D — Risks such as exhaustion and breathing problems rise
Why?Prolonged interventions raise the risk of exhaustion, breathing difficulty and medical collapse. The law sets no fixed time; the test is what is necessary and reasonable.Source
While a person is being held, what should staff monitor continuously?
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Correct answer: B — Breathing, colour, responsiveness and speech
Why?The specification requires staff to manage and monitor a person being held, watching for signs of medical distress. Struggling alone tells you little about their breathing.Source
After using force on a customer, what should a door supervisor do?
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Correct answer: C — Report fully on the force used and why
Why?The specification stresses reporting fully on any use of force, including why it was needed. Leaving it out because there was no injury leaves the supervisor unable to justify their actions later.Source
